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原帖由 師父 於 2006-8-18 01:57 AM 發表
hope this is not too late.
the 40 loss is added back to profit per account. ie, if profit per account is 100, it becomes 140, then less depreciation allowance.
the 60 sales proceeds is subt ...
I think your answer is spot on. There's no balance allowance/charge any more specially on the assets disposed but of course if the pool becomes negative after subtracting the proceeds. obviously there will be a balancing charge as you cannot have a negative $ in the pool. So can I assume that balancing allowance is now history as the proceeds are not measured against the tax WDV of the specific assets disposed, except maybe when you close the business for good?
One minor technical question on how the proceeds are deducted from the pool. I think it should first be deducted before the annual allowance is calculated. This is how we did it in the old days in the balancing charge/allowance era. The general principle is that you were given full year allowance in the year of acquisition, so you are not getting any allowance in the year of disposal.
Thanks 師父 for the input. This saves me 20 grand.
While I get you guys there, one more question on capex.
If I knock a hole in the wall, I can only claim commercial building allowance. When I vacate the premises and deliver vacant possession to the landlord, I have to restore it to the original condition by rebuilding the wall, can I expense it for tax purpose oor am I only able to claim commercial building allowance? In theory I think I am making good the damages, so it's not capital in nature.
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本帖最後由 dejavu2003 於 2006-8-18 02:17 AM 編輯 ]